Cybersecurity Fundamentals Specialist v1.0

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Exam contains 92 questions
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Who must be included in a training and security awareness program?

  • A. Vendors and suppliers
  • B. Employees
  • C. All personnel
  • D. Temporary staff


Answer : C

Which communications system covers a large geographic area?

  • A. Campus Area Network (CAN)
  • B. Local Area Network (LAN)
  • C. Storage Area Network (SAN)
  • D. Wide Area Network (WAN)


Answer : D

Which is the PRIMARY reason why Modbus over Ethernet is easy to manage in a firewall?

  • A. Modbus uses a single master to communicate with multiple slaves using simple commands.
  • B. Modbus is a proprietary protocol that is widely supported by vendors.
  • C. Modbus uses explicit source and destination IP addresses and a single known TCP port.
  • D. Modbus has no known security vulnerabilities, so firewall rules are simple to implement.


Answer : C

Which of the following is the BEST example of detection-in-depth best practices?

  • A. Firewalls and unexpected protocols being used
  • B. IDS sensors deployed within multiple zones in the production environment
  • C. Role-based access control and unusual data transfer patterns
  • D. Role-based access control and VPNs


Answer : B

What are the four main categories for documents in the ISA-62443 (IEC 62443) series?

  • A. General, Policies and Procedures, System, and Component
  • B. End-User, Integrator, Vendor, and Regulator
  • C. Assessment, Mitigation, Documentation, and Maintenance
  • D. People, Processes, Technology, and Training


Answer : A

What are the three main components of the ISASecure Integrated Threat Analysis (ITA) Program?

  • A. Software development security assurance, functional security assessment, and communications robustness testing
  • B. Software robustness security testing, functional software assessment assurance, and essential security functionality assessment
  • C. Communications robustness testing, functiona1 security assurance, and software robustness communications
  • D. Communication speed, disaster recovery, and essential security functionality assessment


Answer : A

Which of the following can be employed as a barrier device in a segmented network?

  • A. Router
  • B. Unmanaged switch
  • C. VPN
  • D. Domain controller


Answer : A

What is the purpose of ISO/IEC 15408 (Common Criteria)?

  • A. To define a security management organization
  • B. To describe a process for risk management
  • C. To define a product development evaluation methodology
  • D. To describe what constitutes a secure product


Answer : C

What does Layer 1 of the ISO/OSI protocol stack provide?

  • A. Data encryption, routing, and end-to-end connectivity
  • B. Framing, converting electrical signals to data, and error checking
  • C. The electrical and physical specifications of the data connection
  • D. User applications specific to network applications such as reading data registers in a PLC


Answer : C

At Layer 4 of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, what identifies the application that will handle a packet inside a host?

  • A. A TCP/UDP application ID
  • B. A TCP/UDP host ID
  • C. A TCP/UDP port number
  • D. A TCP/UDP registry number


Answer : C

Safety management staff are stakeholders of what security program development?

  • A. CSMS
  • B. CSA
  • C. ERM
  • D. SPRP


Answer : A

Which type of cryptographic algorithms requires more than one key?

  • A. Block ciphers
  • B. Stream ciphers
  • C. Symmetric (private) key
  • D. Asymmetric (public) key


Answer : D

Multiuser accounts and shared passwords inherently carry which of the following risks?

  • A. Privilege escalation
  • B. Buffer overflow
  • C. Unauthorized access
  • D. Race conditions


Answer : A

What is the name of the protocol that implements serial Modbus over Ethernet?

  • A. MODBUS/CIP
  • B. MODBUS/Ethernet
  • C. MODBUS/Plus
  • D. MODBUS/TCP


Answer : D

What are the two sublayers of Layer 2?

  • A. HIDS ana NIDS
  • B. LLC and MAC
  • C. OPC and DCOM
  • D. VLAN and VPN


Answer : B

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Exam contains 92 questions
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